Know Islam, Know Paradise



It is the behaviour of Trinitarian Christians to unhesitatingly quote John 1:1 to prove Jesus is God. Unfortunately, the Greek texts disprove this claim and the translation of the KJV is in discordance with the Greek texts.


The NWT gives the translation as “In the beginning was the word, the word was with God and the word was a god”…

This is the correct translation though many do not want the ‘Jesus-Is-God’ illusion they had created for themselves to be destroyed. Before dealing with the texts itself, I would like to firstly use reasoning to annul the claim the word is God.

For instance, consider that John states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person? John 1:1 clearly phrases God as a separate person from the Word (Jesus). And since Jesus is written and identified in John 1:1 as a separate person from God (not just the Father), then that would positively exclude him as being God!

Moreover, as recorded in John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.” And toward the end of his Gospel, John sums up matters by saying: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” (John 20:31) Notice that Jesus is called, not God, but the Son of God. This additional information provided in the Gospel of John shows how John 1:1 should be understood. Jesus, the Word, is “a god” in the sense that he has a high position but is not the same as Almighty God.


In the King James Version, this Scripture reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God [Greek, ton the·on ], and the Word was God [ the·os ].” This verse contains two forms of the Greek noun the·os (god).

The first is preceded by ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article, and in this case the word the·on refers to Almighty God.

In the second instance, however, the·os has no definite article. Sidwell Mrhabuli Mahlangu after trying fruitlessly to explain from the Greek text sent me a link to read from the Greek text  %2F11.htm&sa=U&ved=0CA0QFjABahUKEwja45a18vHAhXGzxQKHSGcB9c&sig2=L0Y79eg9JSbpFsPwtz8q4w&usg=AFQjCNGz_TEsHXE1LWDk0RomGjJ7LWA….


Now, to translate in accordance with the Greek texts, we would have….

“In the beginning was the word [LOGOS], and the word was with[pros] GOD (TON THEON] and god [theos] was the word”.

It is the KJV and other translators who are trying to make Jesus part of the trinity, mischievously translated TON THEON and THEOS to God whereas TON THEON stands for Almighty God while THEOS for a lesser god.

Bible verses in the Greek language that have a construction similar to that of John 1:1 use the expression “a god.” For example, when referring to Herod Agrippa I, the crowds shouted: ‘It is a god speaking.’ And when Paul survived a bite by a poisonous snake, the people said: “He is a god.” (Acts 12:22; 28:3-6) It is in harmony with both Greek grammar and Bible teaching to speak of the Word as, not God, but “a god.”—John 1:1.


Study the two pics carefully, I placed John 1:1 and 2Corinthians 4:4 side by side with the Greek texts and translation making the capital letter “G” fraud vivid. 2Corinthians 4:4 referred to Satan as the god [theos] of this world….

Now, if John 1:1 says the word was THEOS and 2Corinthians says the devil is the THEOS of this world; Why was THEOS translated as ‘G’od in John 1 :1 and as ‘god’ in 2Corinthians 4:4???

Next time a Christian tells you John 1 :1 says Jesus is God, slap the Christian’s face intellectually with this…


Lukman Bashir LuCas Samson

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