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ONE IN THREE OR THREE IN ONE By Sanusi Olawale Ibn AbdulWasii

September 4, 2018 Articles On Islam Comparative Religion Rebuttals 0

It is the claim of Christians that Jesus was God-incarnate, fully man and fully God. Even when the Bible clearly says God cannot change. But how can the finite and the infinite be same? “To be fully God” means freedom from finite forms and from helplessness, and to be “full man” means the absence of divinity. How then can both be same at the same time?

A teacher of mine once told me that, the time of the Father has passed, we are now in the time of the son, Jesus Christ. Holy spirit would also come to assume its duties after this era of Jesus. With this concept, one would decode that this man didn’t believe the Father, the son and the holy spirit are one, but three persons working at different times. But some still claim Jesus is the same as the father who had to come down in human form to save his creatures. What about he holy spirit then?

One who truly has a sense of reasoning would take John 3:16 as a complete fraud. This text is against many things. John 1:1 is another complete nonsense. Why do i say so? If Jesus was there in the beginning (if he was the word), why did he claim not to know just common the last hour? To be son is to be less than divine and to be divine is to be no one’s son. How could Jesus have the attributes of Sonship and divinity altogether neither heard his voice at any time nor seen his shape“?

Christians assert that Jesus claimed to be God when they quote him in John 14:9:

“He that has seen me has seen the Father”.

Didn’t Jesus clearly say that people have never seen God, as it says in John 5: 36-37:

“But I have greater witness than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to finish, the same works that I do, bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me.”
“And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.”

If Jesus is God, why did he testify that he was sent by the father like every other prophet? Common sense should tell, he simply cannot be God if he was sent. Christians will further say that Jesus is God because he was called Son of God, Son of Man, Messiah, and “savior”. Ezekiel was addressed in the Bible as Son of Man. Jesus spoke of “the peace makers” as Sons of God. Any person who followed the will and plan of God was called SON OF GOD in the Jewish tradition and in their language . “Messiah” which in Hebrew means “God’s anointed” and not “Christ”, and “Cyrus” the person is called “Messiah” or “the anointed”. As for “Saviour”, in II Kings 13:5, other individuals were given that title too without being gods. So where is the proof in these terms that Jesus was God when the word son is not exclusively used for him alone?

Jesus cannot be the only begotten son when David was first begotten before him. Also, Jacob was the first born as recorded in the Bible, so Jesus cannot be the only son of God. Christians claim that Jesus acknowledged that he and God were one in the sense of nature when he says in John 10:30;

“I and my father are one”.

Later on in John 17:21-23, Jesus refers to his followers and himself and God as one in five places. So why did they give the previous “one” a special meaning from the other five “ones?

Is God three-in-one and one in three all together or one at a time? If God is one and three simultaneously, so therefore not a hint of the three may possibly be the complete God. Using this, so therefore while Jesus was on earth, he wasn’t a wide-ranging God, nor was the “Father in Heaven” an entirety God.

If God is one in three at a time, then who was the God in heaven when Jesus was on earth? Wouldn’t this contradict his many references to a God in Heaven that sent him? How can he send himself and still be there in heaven as father while he was also here as the son?

If God is three in one at the same time, who was the God in Heaven within three days between the claimed crucifixion and the claimed resurrection?

The Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Ghost is God, but the Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Holy Ghost, and the Holy Ghost is not the Father. But is Jesus same as the father and at the same time Holy Ghost? If the answer is no, then the three cannot be one.

If Jesus was God, why did he tell the man who called him “good master” not to call him “good” (Matthew 19:16-18) because accordingly, there is none good but his God in Heaven alone?

Why do Christians say that God is three-in-one and one in three when Jesus says in Mark 12:29: “The Lord our God is one Lord” in as many places as yet in the Bible?

If belief in the Trinity was such a necessary condition for being a Christian, Why didn’t Jesus teach and emphasize it to the Christians during his time? How were those followers of Jesus considered Christians without ever hearing the term Trinity? Had the Trinity been the spinal cord of Christianity, Jesus would have emphasized it on many occasions and would have taught and explained it in detail to the people.

One among the tools of the Trinitarians is John 1:1; “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God”. This is John speaking and not Jesus. Also, the Greek word for the first occurrence of God is hotheos which means “the God” or “God” with a capital “G”, while the Greek word for its second occurrence is tontheos , which means “a god ” or “god” with a small “g”. Isn’t this dishonesty and inconsistency on the part of those translating the Greek Bible?

Wasn’t the word “god” or “tontheos” also used to refer to others as well as in II Corinthians 4:4 “(and the Devil is) the god of this world” and in Exodus 7:1 “See , I have made thee (Moses ) a god to Pharaoh”?

Either three in one or one in three, no prophet of God preached it. Therefore every knowledge of Trinity is innovative. There was no Trinity until the fourth century. Wikipedia records that according to churches that consider the decisions of ecumenical councils final, Trinitarianism was definitively declared to be Christian doctrine at the 4th-century ecumenical councils, that of the First Council of Nicaea (325), which declared the full divinity of the Son , and the First Council of Constantinople (381), which declared the divinity of the Holy Spirit .”

Either one in three or three in one, none is the actual form of the true God.

 

 

 © Sanusi Olawale Ibn AbdulWasii

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